Aristotle claims that virtuous action is done “with knowle

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Aristotle claims that virtuous action is done “with knowledge” (Bk II, chapter 4), which is usually taken to mean that the virtuous person has an understanding of why what they are doing is good, as opposed to doing the good thing but not really understanding what makes it good, or simply doing the good thing out of custom or because that’s what one was told to do. Is Aristotle right to put this condition on virtuous behavior? Is there a difference between someone who does the right thing with knowledge, and someone who does it out of custom or habit or because that’s what they were told to do? Be sure to reference either Hill or Robinson, as well as Aristotle, in addressing the prompt.

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